Does the Schrödinger equation apply to massless particles?
The Schrodinger Equation was constructed specifically because massive particles have a different dispersion relation than the simple one obeyed by photons. But if the particle in question has no mass, then there’s no need for any Schrodinger Equation, and one can simply use the classical wave equation.
What is Schrödinger equation for non relativistic particles?
The Schrödinger equation is based on the Planck-Einstein equations, which connect the wave and particle behavior of the quantum particles into each other. The differential equation is obtained by the jointly usage of the Planck-Einstein equations with the non-relativistic energy relation of classical dynamics.
Is Schrödinger equation valid for relativistic particle?
Why is the Schrodinger wave equation not for relativistic particles? Because it is based on Newtonian physics rather than relativistic. It’s just classic kinetic energy + potential. There is no mass energy, no relativistic corrections etc.
What are spinless particles?
It is a quantized version of the relativistic energy–momentum relation. Its solutions include a quantum scalar or pseudoscalar field, a field whose quanta are spinless particles. The equation describes all spinless particles with positive, negative, and zero charge.
What does the Schrödinger equation describe?
Essentially a wave equation, the Schrödinger equation describes the form of the probability waves (or wave functions [see de Broglie wave]) that govern the motion of small particles, and it specifies how these waves are altered by external influences.
Is Schrödinger equation Lorentz invariant?
The Schrodinger equation is not Lorentz Invariant, so it cannot be applied to the wave functions of moving particles. By using this knowledge, a Lorentz Invariant form of the Schrodinger equation can be developed that can be applied to the wave functions of moving particles.
Why is the Schrödinger equation not Lorentz invariant?
The Schrödinger equation of one body quantum mechanics is clearly not manifestly Lorentz invariant, not if the wavefunction is treated as a scalar function. This is due to the occurrence of one time derivative but two space derivatives in the equation.